The meaning of innocent is clearly explained in UNCLOS and if it is complicated it is because vested parties want to interpret certain actions to suit their own narrative and actions.The matter of "innocent passage" is more complicated than a few lines of legal/treaty documents.
Sorry "passage" and "innocent" has reasonably clear meaning in language in plain understanding and in UNCLOS. In this incident, if the Iranians think that the intrusion is not innocent then under international law they have the right to escort/evict the vessels from their territorial waters. There is no provision for boarding under such a situation. The Iranians by boarding has itself committed an act of hostility. The fact that the USN and the WH has acted so passively in the face of such hostile actions presents problems for future USN operations when subject to similar conditions. In other words, a precedent has been set and the damage in my view would take inordinate amount of future effort to reverse.If we put down the legal technical part, this is what I understand of "innocent passage".
1. Party A transit Party B's territorial water from point a to point b both in international water.
2. The shortest route is of course a straight line which go through Party B's territorial water.
3. Party A has innocent passage if either the straight line is the only path, or more likely any alternative path (not passing territorial water) is significantly longer, impractical. This is the first thing subject to different understanding, not set in stone.
4. The passage must be transit in nature, no maneuver, no stop, and shortest path. There should be no action that indicate intension of hostility. This is the second thing subject to understanding of both parties, again not set in stone.
That is why there are rules so that there is less room for miscalculation. The Iranians had acted outside the norm of international law.Now, if we put this incident in perspective. Iran and U.S. have a long history of hostility including casualties. Past confrontation is very fresh, so Iranian interpretation of intension of the passage would be to the hostile side regardless the true intension/reason of U.S. This defeat the 4th point of "innocent passage".
Innocent passage is presumed. Should the Iranians wish to take a view that all intrusion is not then the most they are allowed under international law is to evict the vessls. Boarding is not an option. By doing that they have cross the line which under a different administration that could have invoked a more assertive response.When the arrest happened, Iran has no information from US side claiming drift caused by human errors. That means, in Iranian eyes, it is a simple incursion. How could anybody know if the "intruding" boats are merely sailing through for a passage without communication? The only thing the Iranian see is a potential hostile party coming straight into their territorial water. Also, even the boat managed to sail away from Iranian water after realizing the mistake, that would make the move certainly an intended incursion than a passage because it is not straight through but rather maneuver. This defeat both point 3 and 4.
Claiming the right of "innocent passage" by one side is one thing, but who is to judge that act is really "innocent passage"? The difference of it with "invasion" is only of the intension, therein the trust of the two parties. In this case, there is no trust. I am sure if the boats drifted into Oman's water, there wouldn't be any problem at all.
International law and civil cases are different. Military vessels are not subject to boarding. They are sovereign vessels just like embassies. Had those two vessels been non military then the Iranians had the right to board and inspect.If we put the case in a court just like domestic case, person A stepped on the foot of person B, person A claims accident, person B claims insult. The law says accident is forgivable but insult is punishable. Both A and B can be legally right or wrong, depending on how the Judge interprets. Now there is no Judge in the incident of Iran/U.S. So I fail to see how Iran broke international law more than U.S. did or not.
The "Expert" in that article has his right to make his opinion heard, just like the lawyer of person A of the domestic case above. But there is surely other expert holding different views and I am one of them. I use quotation marks for that "expert" is because he sounds like a lawyer than a neutral academian who acknowledge more than one possibilities.
Another thing is that, the quick release of the U.S. personnel actually indicated the communication was established very quickly after the incident and Iran has accepted the explanation, put aside the propaganda thing moves. This is a very positive development from both sides (the administration of both sides). But we also see the flame-fanner of both sides too.
I understand human error is the official position at the moment until the internal investigations are completed (if ever). Human error would suggest that the personnel on board can't even read simple navigation bearing correctly. On top of that they somehow unfortunately had mechanical problem. They did not inform base of the problem and base did not realise through their own monitoring systems that they were off course. Finally, they did not consider expeditiously and judiciously to tow the vessel. In a world where spin has become the norm, this has got to be at the top of the cow manure.The sources said the mistake was a result of human error, not a failure in navigation systems."
says
In this incident, if the Iranians think that the intrusion is not innocent then under international law they have the right to escort/evict the vessels from their territorial waters.
Or the intrusion that happened firstly has itself committed an act of hostility?The Iranians by boarding has itself committed an act of hostility.
That is why there are rules so that there is less room for miscalculation. The Iranians had acted outside the norm of international law.
Innocent passage is presumed. Should the Iranians wish to take a view that all intrusion is not then the most they are allowed under international law is to evict the vessls. Boarding is not an option. By doing that they have cross the line which under a different administration that could have invoked a more assertive response.
International law and civil cases are different.
Military vessels are not subject to boarding. They are sovereign vessels just like embassies.
Customary law of the seas were essentially embodied within UNCLOS and the provisions within UNCLOS are clear on the meaning of innocent passage and the treatment of military vessels. That is the international standard. Not what I say or what you might think.As far as I know, in many U.S. states, an intruder can be shot dead besides being escorted out of private property.
Or the intrusion that happened firstly has itself committed an act of hostility?
Your claim of the boarding being hostile is based on your own presumtion of innocent, that innocence may be true, at least by yourself, but you have to understand that your thinking is not shared necessarily with everyone, and it is not only your thought count, right?
Please don't use a generic word "international law", use a specific one with terms that has jurisdiction on both parties to justify the allowed and not allowed action.
Innocent passage is ONLY presumed by the passing party, not by the intruded party. Please don't use a generic word "international law", see above.
Boarding is not an option ONLY IF that happened in international water.
Different in many ways, but same in principle. If a judge in a domestic case (criminal and civic) is not able to decide, why do you think in an International case, the non-existing Judge can judge?
My original post was to make you see the fact that "nobody can judge, not you alone at least".
So is one country's territory, be it land or sea. Not subjected to intrusion.
Enough has been said from my side, if you still can't see my points, so be it.
Customary law of the seas were essentially embodied within UNCLOS and the provisions within UNCLOS are clear on the meaning of innocent passage and the treatment of military vessels. That is the international standard. Not what I say or what you might think.
Please read UNCLOS on innocent passage. It is not a voluminous document.Mind point out the passage in UNCLOS on the definition on top of what taxiya provided?
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What has US domestic law to do with UNCLOS?In many parts of the US, it's perfectly legal for a home owner to shoot someone if that person invaded his/her home.
Please read UNCLOS on innocent passage. It is not a voluminous document.
What has US domestic law to do with UNCLOS?
If you do wish to refer to the provisions that are found in UNCLOS pertaining to innocent passage, I have nothing to add as I can only lead a horse to the well. It is your choice thereafter.I think the onus is on you to provide the proof since you were the one that brought it up
Same analogy
If you do wish to refer to the provisions that are found in UNCLOS pertaining to innocent passage, I have nothing to add as I can only lead a horse to the well. It is your choice thereafter.
As to your analogy, you clearly do not understand general principles of divide between different legislative provisions, be it applicability or simply just logical extension of basic reasoning. Charges and points of law are specific matters and not some analogy.
In this incident, if the Iranians think that the intrusion is not innocent then under international law they have the right to escort/evict the vessels from their territorial waters. There is no provision for boarding under such a situation