So this article is written by a journalist making the argument for PPP adjustment to military spending based on this reasoning:For one, I actually have deep knowledge of economics. But for an article that goes over this exact same issue in depth:
So not only does he admit it's an imperfect measure, his reasoning for WHY it's allegedly a better measure is basically that the Chinese military buys its equipment from local firms. Well, duh. Locally-produced Chinese military armaments are obviously cheaper, but how does that get you to being able to use PPP's full adjustment, especially since I've already established with White Noise that PPP calculations don't include almost ANYTHING even remotely related to military products? I think you can do better than using a journalist with not even a basic knowledge of PPP.First, the standard comparisons of international defense spending — like the graph above — convert everything to US dollars at market rates. That’s fine if you’re comparing countries’ power to buy military equipment with hard currency on the global market.
But countries like Russia and China buy most of their equipment from domestic suppliers, which they can pay in local currency. As Milley points out, most of these domestic defense firms are also either officially government-owned or heavily government-influenced, and their products are generally much cheaper than their US equivalents.
So instead of using market rates, a better measure (albeit still imperfect) would be (PPP), which tries to account for prices being different in different countries. That gets you this chart