To give you some sources of Sinocentrism and how Japan at a time thought itself as the rightful decedent of China, I am only going to quote wiki:
That does not mean anything, and notice the year 1825, that is the time when China was getting weak and Japan was getting strong, it sees itself able to reform while China was not, so it entertain the notion that itself was now the new China in spirit, but notice this, they didn't say I am now the "new Japan", instead they said I am now the new "Old China" Why would they do that? They do it because at the time the identity of China still represents power and center of Mandate of Heaven order, so for them to do this is nothing but an affirmation of desire for power than anything else. And just like HRM, Tazr Russia, Turke, Arabs who also think they are the new Rome, they were not, because Rome have fallen and never to get back up. However no matter how weak China was, China was still there, so again... no matter what Japan think, it cannot replace something that is already here.
And now notice Japan's attitude post WW2, they think themselves as none-Asians, at one time they seriously consider to give a bid to join EU, and very much looking down on their fellow Asians who were so backwards, and maybe people would argue that even today, Japan still views Asia and China as backward and not worthy of their consideration. So what does this mean? It means Japan seek power, it wants to belong to whoever is the top dog, when China was top dog for 2000 years, then it seeks to became more like China, when Western nations are now top dog now Japan seeks to be more like them.
My statement on empires is only regarding landmass, if you think about it, Pan-Slavic culture endured the rise and fall of the russian empire, SU and now the federation. Anglo-Saxon culture, transcended Saxony and Angles; it survived England, Britain, the UK, the British Empire, and it still exist today. Similarly, other cultural identities survived to this day even if the state of empire ceased to exist.
What I am saying is that the endurance of Chinese culture is not out of the ordinary, The only difference is that China and Russia retained most of the land they acquired during their empire.
There is a big difference, the Slavic peoples migration into Eastern Europe and Russia is a relatively recent phenomenon, and the Russian identity itself was not developed until 1000s. And before that due to geographic remoteness and harsh climate, those places was pretty uninhabited, so the migrating Slavic soon either totally displaced the locals or settling in the new land. So they were not facing the challenges China have faced throughout it is history, where everywhere was fertile land and have large indigenous populations already present.
And same thing for England, why did you choose to start counting from Anglo-Saxon period? Why not pre-Roman Celts tribes? which who's culture did NOT survive in the invasion of Rome and became the Britannia province, and guess what? After Rome fall, their tradition was once again replaced by invading Angles, Saxons and Jutes people, which is another break. Also you can very much argue that Norman conquest of England in 1066 was also another significant break where almost all the existing nobility were replaced by the invading French-speaking aristocracy.
So it is kinda unfair that you pick two civilization which are so different from China, but only pick one period in which they share similarly with China and claim everything else is the same.
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