Isn't the discussion about why China had more female billionaires than all of the West put together?
To recap you suggested it had something to do with the greater equality between the genders.
I disagreed by suggesting there was very little difference between China and the West when comparing the level of gender equality and offered up other reasons.
"Equality of the genders" is a very vague and difficult to quantify phrase. Gender equality can after all be looked at from all sorts of domains, from social status/opportunity, to economic status/opportunity, to political status/opportunity, to military status/opportunity, so on and so forth. Some of these domains may even overlap.
In this case, the specific domain we are trying to examine the cause for, is China's greater number of self made female billionaires compared to other countries, when considering proportions of male vs female billionaires both within each country and between each country.
So specifically, we are looking at the basis of gender differences and/or equality which may have allowed women in China to achieve greater economic status or partake in more economic opportunity than in other countries.
In the rest of your post you then go on to describe a number of factors such as economic, educational, social, which may all have helped provide the circumstances for Chinese women to reach greater economic status/opportunity... and that itself is an attempt at explaining why there may be greater gender equality in this specific economic domain in China than in other countries. After all, things such as gender equality are very much dependent on the circumstances which may or may not enable certain degrees of equality to be reached.
The point I'm making is that it's actually very reasonable to use "gender equality" as a reason for trying to explain this difference, but one needs to be more specific about the domain of gender equality and what circumstances may or may not exist for the results to have occurred.
Furthermore, having good circumstances for gender equality in one domain (such as economic) may not always mean good circumstances for gender equality in another domain (such as politics).
In the case of this specific topic (self made female billionaires), I think it would be very sensible to argue that China may have better circumstances that allow more females to reach potentially higher rungs of economic status and opportunity compared to other nations, and that this could be described as greater gender equality in the economic domain.