Sorry, but can anyone make sense of this?
Why is Yankee (or the Guancha Gang in general) simultaneously dismissing the suggestion/notion of China developing the 1000-2000-kilometer ULRSAM, while also still strongly hinting at the capability of the CJ-1000 hitting aerial targets?
If anything - Shouldn't a dedicated (i.e. designed-from-the-ground-up) ULRSAM be much more capable at engaging aerial targets than a cruise missile with surface strike as its primary mission, instead of the other way around?
I think they are saying, why would the PLA need to develop a dedicated thousand km+ SAM when the CJ1000 already exists and can engage air targets at that range?
Using AG missiles for AA is not actually unprecedented. The U.S. use of hellfires for anti-drone work is just a recent example.
As others have pointed out, this isn’t meant to be shooting at fighters at that range, but rather high value support assets like bombers, tankers, AWACS and transports.
Yes, aircraft move at great speed in the air, but if your missile is designed to hit targets at M7, does a few hundred knots of airspeed on the target make any practical difference? Especially when coupled with the expected massive warhead of the CJ1000?
I think this capability was probably discovered rather than designed for. Where they probably first looked to extend the engagement envelope to cover the obvious scenario of, if I use a CJ1000 to target a high value enemy air asset on the ground and opfor managed to scramble it into the air before the missile arrived, can the CJ1000 still hit it? If so, at what airspeed and altitude can the target aircraft be flying at for the CJ1000 to still be able to hit it? It seems that after they did the math, and potentially field tested it, they discovered that being airborne didn’t actually matter all that much to the CJ1000’s ability to prosecute such targets.