Brumby
Major
It is not an assumption. That authority is legislated by UNCLOS. Article 9 requires a duty on the Tribunal to consider whether it has jurisdiction only after having made due consideration based on both law and fact. In other words, the Tribunal has sole authority to make that determination. In the Philippines case, the Tribunal had made the determination that it has the jurisdiction on specific issues. The Hague findings were handed out last year in a 149 page document.all your words is based on the assumption that PCA has jurisdiction. For that assumption you referred to Article 9 Annex VII.
This is your base. However, "a duty to consider" will only lead to a review of the filing not necessarily a proceeding, is it not? It only means duty to consider, no more. Duty =\= Jurisdiction. I also suggest you to revisit logic class.
Did you actually bother to read that document and reconcile the findings to China's opt out before asserting that the Tribunal has no jurisdiction? I do question your plain reading ability and understanding of UNCLOS text and the meaning of proceeding which is irrelevant to the Tribunal's determination.
Frankly based on your arguments I don't think you actually understand the nature of the opt out by China; the meaning of proceeding and how that is connected to the jurisdiction issue. In other words, you are making a bunch of statements that are incoherent as a basic legal argument.The opt out act (read the Chinese claim some posts back) were taken by many tenths countries. The act exclude them from taking up or accepting any legal proceedings of such nature, making such proceedings including PCA arbitration without a legal base, is that right? so the review (to determine whether or not accept the case) is a duty, but not the admitting and proceeding, is it right? Because of the opt out which removed the legal ground of arbitration there is ONLY one logical outcome of the review process, dismiss.
Your example affirms my assessment of your lack of understanding of jurisdictional authority. It is a question of both law and fact whether the US court has jurisdiction. Proceeding is simply a prescribed judicial process. In your example, you cannot even articulate why the US court has no legal standing to hear the case but yet want to use such an example as an analogy.For example, if a Chinese person who has never been to U.S. sue a person in Germany in a court in Texas, non of them has anything related to U.S. What will happen then? I am sure the court will have the duty to review the case, but ONLY to find out whether the case is valid in the court, and the only conclusion can be dismiss, no proceeding should ever happen. The court would breaking laws if it choose to proceed. That is exactly what I am saying. Don't know if you can get the idea. I doubt as I sense you are acting exactly as the PCA.
You obviously think you are making a substantive argument. You are merely once again repeating your assertion without attempting to substantiate it.All your accusation of me ignoring the arbitral process and asking me to look at the Tribunal's blah blah Is based on the assumption of PCA has the right to proceed, that is what I was rejecting all the time due to what I have said in the paragraph above. So there is no need for me to answer this, but I suggest you to think of my "is that right?"s
I stand by what I said. It is rubbish because it is groundless. If you so liberally accuse an international institution as a kangaroo court, then you have already by your own behaviour removed the gloves.Finally, you own me an apology for calling my posts "rubbish". You have every right to disagree with me by arguing, but your wording is personal insult without doubt. And anything other than an apology is "the word of yours" in return.
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